Veterinary Medicine- ICAR JRF/SRF 2024

Official solved question paper with verified bilingual step-by-step solutions and key concepts. आधिकारिक हल प्रश्न पत्र — विस्तृत द्विभाषी व्याख्या, प्रामाणिक उत्तर कुंजी एवं मुख्य अवधारणाओं सहित।

Questions in this Paper इस प्रश्न पत्र के प्रश्न

120 Questions 120 प्रश्न
1
Movement of DNA from one bacterium to another through a tubular bridge or pilus:
Agronomy, Tillage & Field Crop Production MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
2
Which of the following is responsible for eliminating toxic oxygen by-products from cells?
Agronomy, Tillage & Field Crop Production MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
3
form of multiple parasitism in which a parasite preferentially attacks a host that is already parasitized by another species is known as
Crop Genetics, Plant Breeding & IPR MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
4
For mass multiplication of DD-136 nematode, the common host used is
Crop Genetics, Plant Breeding & IPR MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
5
Chlorpyriphos methyl is effective against stored product insects except
Crop Genetics, Plant Breeding & IPR MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
6
Which of the following insects often cause inhalational allergies in human following large emergence of adult insects
Crop Genetics, Plant Breeding & IPR MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
7

Given below are two statements

Statement (|); Climate is a weather condition related to smaller areas at a given place and at a given time.
Statement (II) : Weather is a condition of atmosphere at a given place and at a given time

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation Statement Based +4 / −1
8
The local name of cyclone in Philippines is
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
9

Which one of the following are secondary tillage implements?

(A) .Subsoiler
(B) .Cultivator
(C) .Disc harrow
(D) . Wetland plough

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
10
is the most suitable, drought resistant and persistant grass?
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
11
The rainfed area in India is approximately
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
12
Which nutrient is often a limiting factor in agricultural production?
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
13
What is a potential disadvantage of agroforestry systems?
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
14
Pungency in mustard oil is due to
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
15
Sesamum belongs to the family
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
16
Dark period is critical in which type of plant?
Agronomy, Tillage & Field Crop Production MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
17
Which of the following is NOT a significant contributor to greenhouse gas emissions from livestock farming?
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
18
Fe deficiency is mostly seen in crops growing on
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
19
EDV (Essentially Derived Varieties) are those which are derived from
Agronomy, Tillage & Field Crop Production MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
20
What is the role of "companion planting" in agriculture?
Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Reclamation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
21
Which pathogen is commonly associated with septicemia in piglets and may localize in joints, endocardium, and meninges?
General Systemic States MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
22
Which of the following is a common clinical finding associated with neonatal septicemia in farm animals?
General Systemic States MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
23
Which condition in horses can lead to sudden death from peracute endogenous toxemia?
Equine Colic MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
24
What is a limitation of ultrasonography?
Diagnostic Ultrasonography MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
25
Which of the following is a major clinical finding associated with enteritis?
Enteritis, Secretory vs Malabsorptive Diarrhe MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
26
What is the primary cause of frothy bloat in ruminants?
Ruminal Tympany MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
27
What is a common cause of hemolytic jaundice in animals?
Hepatic Diseases MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
28
What is the primary origin of hemorrhage in hemoptysis?
Pulmonary Congestion, Edema, Epistaxis & Hemo MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
29
Pulmonary emphysema is characterized by
Pulmonary Emphysema, Atelectasis & Chronic Ob MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
30
What is the most common cause of acute kidney failure due to nephrosis?
Renal Pathology MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
31
Indicate the FDA-approved drug used for the reversal of xylazine-induced sedation in the horse.
Adrenergic Antagonists MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
32
In peptic ulcers, antacids do have a primary role in’
Gastric & Ruminal Pharmacology MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
33
Indicate the toxicant / agent, the toxicity of which increases due to ruminal metabolism?
Phytotoxicoses & Plant Poisonings MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
34

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : In ruminants, photosensitization is a cascading reaction in which a photodynamic molecule gets activated by the absorption of an appropriate wavelength leading to clinical photosensitization
Reason (R) : It is usually due to the pouring of phylloerythrin in the dermal blood circulation, secondary to diffuse liver disease.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

General Principles of Toxicology Assertion & Reason +4 / −1
35
The primary endogenous substrate for nitric oxide synthase is
Vasoactive Peptides & Mediators MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
36
Choline is transported from the extracellular fluid into the neuron terminal by a sodium-dependent membrane choline transporter which can be blocked by
Cholinergic Transmission MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
37
Which one of the following options is a Catechol-O-Methyl transferase inhibitor:
Central Stimulants, Anticonvulsants & Euthana MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
38
Which of the following CNS neurotransmitter is excitatory on the individual neurons and causes a decrease in potassium conductance
Cholinergic Transmission MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
39

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Antrycide pro salt is used for the therapy and prophylaxis of trypanosomiasis.
Reason (R) : Initial short and rapid protection from trypanosomiasis is offered by Quinapyramine chloride, followed by prophylactic effect by Quinapyramine sulfate latter

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Anthelmintics, Antiprotozoals & Anticoccidial Assertion & Reason +4 / −1
40
Which one of the anticoccidial agents acts on 2" day of the lifecycle of Emeria but gives an unpleasant taste to the flesh of the broilers if not withdrawn 5 days before slaughter
Anthelmintics, Antiprotozoals & Anticoccidial MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
41
Fire Hose effect at the time of ejaculation is shown by ?
Functional Anatomy & Histology of Male Genita MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
42
Match List with List-l ror fp MID GESTATION (80 DAYS) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Pregnancy Diagnosis Match the Following +4 / −1
43
Genetic condition of defective foetus responsible for hydroamnios condition is A). Bull dog calf in dexter cattle B). Brachygnathic calves in Angus cattle C). Muscle contracture monster in sahiwal
Gestational Pathology MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
44
Which of the folowing has highest number of sperm per ejaculate?
Spermatogenesis, Seminiferous Epithelial Cycl MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
45
Maceration occur at which stage of gestation ?
Fetal Death MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
46

Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Simple uterus : primates B.Bicornuate = Sow, Mare, Bitch
C. Bipartite Ewe , Doe D Duplex uterus: Rabbit , Rat Choose the corect anwer from the options given below
Functional Anatomy & Histology of Female Geni MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
47
Pre ovulatory lutenisation occurs in ?
Canine Estrous Cycle MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
48
The time period of events of courtship and copulation in horses is ?
Stallion Reproduction MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
49
Which of the following statement is true in case of freemartin condition ?
Congenital & Developmental Anomalies Statement Based +4 / −1
50
Which of the following is not the primary abnormality of sperm ?
Sperm Morphology & Viability MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
51
Which one of the following is the longest cranial nerve
Laryngeal & Pharyngeal Surgery MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
52
Number of mammae (Mammary glands) in cats is
Udder & Teat Surgery MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
53
Dorsal longitudinal ligament is strong and wide in-
Thoracic Anatomy & Approaches MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
54
Elbow joint is an example of
Joint Affections MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
55
Match List-1 with List-l Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Surgical Suture Materials Match the Following +4 / −1
56
The part of the stomach that is most prone to necrosis during GDV in dogs is
Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus in Dogs MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
57
Number of sternal vertebrae in horse
Thoracic Anatomy & Approaches MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
58
Number of patellar ligaments in dog is
Patellar Affections MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
59
Most common site for lodgement of urethral calculi in goats is
Urolithiasis & Urinary Surgery MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
60

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Hypothermia is usually fatal in newborns
Reason (R) : In new borns hypothalamus does not regulate the temperature efficiently

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Anaesthetic Monitoring, Neonatal Hypothermia Assertion & Reason +4 / −1
61
The scythe shaped spleen is present in
Accessory Digestive Organs MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
62
The paneth cell are seen in
Histology of Digestive & Respiratory MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
63
Sweeney is caused by damage to which of the following nerve
Peripheral Neurology & Clinical Nerve Blocks MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
64
Which of the structure is not part of cerebellum
Gross Morphology of Brain MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
65
The tendon of insertion of rectus abdominis muscle is known as:
Myology of Head, Neck & Trunk MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
66
Round ligament of liver is the fetal remnant of.
Placentology & Fetal Remnants MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
67
The macrophages of nervous tissue are known as:
Muscle & Nervous Tissue Histology MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
68

Identify the corect sequence in cleavage

A. Motula formation
B. Compaction
C. Blastulation
D. Zona hatching
E. Blastocyst elongation Choose the most appropriate answes from the optons given below
Fertilization, Cleavage Types & Blastocyst Se MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
69
The peritoneum is lined by
Histology of Lymphoid Organs & Serosa MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
70
Hassal's corpuscles are seen in
Histology of Lymphoid Organs & Serosa MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
71
Which emergency measure is recommended for severe cases of ruminal tympany to save the life of the animal?
Ruminal Tympany MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
72
What is the primary difference between pasture bloat and feediot bloat in cattle?
Ruminal Tympany MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
73
Which therapeutic principle is recommended for managing secretory diarrhea ?
Enteritis, Secretory vs Malabsorptive Diarrhe MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
74
What is the main cause of hypovolemic shock in large animals?
Pathophysiology & Shock MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
75
Match List I with List II: (). When presented with ruminating cattle with a distended abdomen and marked distension of the left

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Ruminal Tympany Match the Following +4 / −1
76
What is the most common cause of death in cases of traumatic pericarditis?
Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis , Traumatic Per MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
77
Put the steps of hepatocellular jaundice in the correct order: A) Impaired liver capacity to conjugate bilirubin B) Mechanical obstruction of intrahepatic bile flow ) Swelling and edema in the liver D) Elevation of conjugated bilirubin levels

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Hepatic Diseases MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
78
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of jaundice (icterus)?
Hepatic Diseases MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
79
What specific diagnostic method is used to identify excessive pleural fluid associated with pleuritis 2
Pleuritis, Pleural Effusion & Thoracic Diagno MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
80
What is a characteristic necropsy finding in chronic cases of cystitis?
Lower Urinary Tract Disorders MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
81
What is a common consequence of excessive supplementation with copper in dairy herds?
Trace Element Deficiencies & Toxicities MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
82
What is a common environmental risk factor for fluoride poisoning in animals?
Heavy Metal & Mineral Toxicities MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
83
True epilepsy characterized by.
Functional & Paroxysmal Nervous Disorders MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
84
What is an early and consistent sign of equine leukoencephalomalacia (ELEM)?
Mycotoxicoses MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
85
Impetigo characterized by.
Integumentary Disorders MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
86
Which part of the kidney is primarily affected in nephrosis?
Renal Pathology MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
87
Arrange the following clinical signs of listerial encephalitis in sheep in the order of their occurrence, from earliest to latest A) Separation from the flock B) Fever C) Ipsilateral facial paralysis D) Circling and head titt

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Central Nervous System Diseases Chronological +4 / −1
88
What is a potential cause of sudden death due to transportation stress in pigs?
Peracute Systemic Syndromes & Sudden Death in MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
89
Which disease in cattle is listed as having conjunctivitis as a secondary part of the syndrome?
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis , Bluetongu MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
90
Which fungal species has been identified in cases of fungal keratomycosis in foals and adult horses?
Fungal Diseases MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
91
Which of the following pathogens is considered as major contagious in causing mastitis?
Bovine Mastitis MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
92
What is the primary classification unit for Leptospira spp.?
Leptospirosis, Actinomycosis, Actinobacillosi MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
93
Which disease is characterized by acute fever and red-colored milk in cattle?
Leptospirosis, Actinomycosis, Actinobacillosi MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
94
What is the primary manifestation of a hyperacute form of pneumonic pasteurellosis?
Pasteurellosis & Hemorrhagic Septicemia in Ca MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
95
Which metabolic profile component is associated with reduced milk production and increased risk of ketosis in dairy cows?
Bovine Ketosis, Pregnancy Toxemia & Fatty Liv MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
96
Arrange the following principles of disease control in the correct sequence A) Increase specific immunity B) Eliminate or minimize risk factors ) Quarantine imported animals D) Clean and disinfect animal houses regularly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Principles of Infectious Disease Control Chronological +4 / −1
97
Why is ultrasonography considered more suited than radiography for examining soft tissue structures?
Diagnostic Ultrasonography MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
98
What are stressors in the context of animal welfare?
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960, Sl MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
99
Which clinical finding is NOT remarkable in dehydrated horses ? A) Sunken eyes. B) Inelastic skin C) Dryness of the skin. D) Enlarged eyeballs.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid-Base Imbalances MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
100
Which cells transport Brucella to regional lymph nodes and other sites in the body?
Bovine Brucellosis, Tuberculosis & Paratuberc MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
101
What are some biomarkers that show promise for diagnosing sepsis in foals or adult horses?
General Systemic States MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
102
Which phase of FMD infection involves the development of vesicles and bullae in the mouth and on the feet?
Foot & Mouth Disease MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
103
Arrange the following clinical signs of rabies in the order they typically appear: A) Excessive salivation B) Behavioral changes C) Pharyngeal paralysis D) Vocalization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Viral Encephalitides Chronological +4 / −1
104
What is the primary mechanism of anemia development in nagana during the chronic stage of infection?
Hemoprotozoan Diseases MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
105
What factors determine the risk of hepatic fasciolosis?
Trematode & Cestode Infections MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
106
Which anthelmintic has been shown to be resistant against Parascaris equorum in horses?
Gastrointestinal Nematodiasis MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
107
Which of the following regions is primarily affected by Anoplocephala perfoliata in horses?
Trematode & Cestode Infections MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
108
What is the primary diagnostic method for confirming Ascaris suum infection?
Gastrointestinal Nematodiasis MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
109
Arrange the following laboratory investigation steps in the correct sequence for diagnosing infectious diseases: A) Conduct clinical and laboratory examinations B) Consult diagnostic laboratories for available tests C) Submit appropriate samples to the laboratory D) Establish a tentative diagnosis based on clinical and epidemiological findings

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Clinical Laboratory Diagnostics Chronological +4 / −1
110
Which technique is used to facilitate penile extrusion in rams, bucks and wethers for examination of the urethral process?
History Taking, Physical Restraint & General MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
111
What is the primary limitation in the treatment of bacterial meningitis in farm animals?
Antimicrobial Stewardship, Pharmacokinetics i MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
112
What is the primary mode of transmission for Newcastle disease virus (NDV)?
Avian Viral Respiratory & Systemic Diseases MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
113
What was the purpose of the Glanders and Farcy Act of 18997
Animal Disease Control Legislation MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
114
Which type of transfusion is recommended when there is anemia with hypovolemia?
Transfusion Medicine MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
115
Which tick species is the primary vector for the transmission of Kyasanur Forest Disease?
Ectoparasitic Infestations MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
116
What clinical syndrome is described as a sequela to FMD in cattle?
Foot & Mouth Disease MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
117
Why oxygen therapy is of minimal value in animals with anemia or abnormal hemoglobin?
Oxygen Therapy, Mechanical Ventilation & Emer MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
118
What is a major theoretical concern regarding the administration of stroma-free Hb solutions?
Transfusion Medicine MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
119
What is the primary focus of ethics in veterinary medicine?
Indian Veterinary Council Act 1984, State Cou MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1
120
What condition may affect the fertility of bulls with orchitis and epididymitis caused by Brucella spp.?
Bovine Brucellosis, Tuberculosis & Paratuberc MCQ (Single Correct) +4 / −1

Ready to Practice the Full Paper? क्या आप पूरे प्रश्न पत्र का अभ्यास करने के लिए तैयार हैं?

Practice all 120 questions with live evaluation, step-by-step solutions, and detailed explanations. सभी 120 प्रश्नों का लाइव मूल्यांकन, तुरंत फीडबैक और विस्तृत द्विभाषी समाधान के साथ अभ्यास करें।

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